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| A Pesach D'var Torah; Well, really a quetion | |
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| Tweet Topic Started: Apr 25 2008, 01:52 AM (266 Views) | |
| Kmelion | Apr 25 2008, 01:52 AM Post #1 |
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Yishuvnik
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Most of us are taught that the reason we eat Matzah on Pesach is because the Nation didn't have time to prepare their bread for rising and baking. Heck, it even says as much: Exodus 12:39: They baked the dough that they took out of Egypt into unleavened cakes, for they could not be leavened for they were driven from Egypt for they could not delay nor had they made provisions for themselves. Yet at the beginning of this chapter, Hashem clearly states numerous times that one of the laws of Pesach is no leaven shall be eaten nor be in one's home. Exodus 12:15: For a seven day period shall you eat matzot but on the previous day you shall nullify the leaven from your homes; for anyone who eats leavened food - that soul shall be cut off from Israel, from the first day to the seventh day." Exodus 12:17-20: Keep, then, this custom of the unleavened bread. Since it was on this very day that I brought your ranks out of the land of Egypt, you must celebrate this day throughout your generations as a perpetual institution. From the evening of the fourteenth day of the first month until the evening of the twenty-first day of this month you shall eat unleavened bread. For seven days no leaven may be found in your houses. Anyone, be he a resident alien or a native, who eats leavened food shall be cut off from the community of Israel. Nothing leavened may you eat; wherever you dwell you may eat only unleavened bread. So why is this point - the point that Hashem simply commanded us to do this usually lost in favor of 'we didn't have enough time to let the dough rise' when teaching why we eat matzah on Pesach? And why is it presented this way in the Torah? Why does 12:39 say they didn't have time to let the dough rise when clearly it would have been a violation of Hashem's command? |
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| Bas Melech | Apr 25 2008, 04:28 AM Post #2 |
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queen
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I think the difference between the two psukim you're talkking about is that the one is talking about Pesach in/leaving Mitzrayim, while the second talks about Pesach for the following generations. And the fact that the one is before the other does not matter as we know it has been said "Ein mukdam umeuchar batorah..." (the torah is not written in chronological order.) Basically the reason why leavened bread is forbidden is because of what happened in Mitzrayim. There are a few differences in what is called Pesach Mitzrayim (Pesach in Egypt) and Pesach ledorot (for the furture generations). I hope that made sense. |
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3:48 AM Jul 11